IBM

C2150-614 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 Deployment

0

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 115
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7

The test consists of 6 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 – Planning (25%)
Select the different Security QRadar SIEM components required to make up a suitable distributed deployment (e.g. Cloud, hardware or virtual machine; using QRadar Consoles, event and flow collectors, event and flow processors, and data nodes; considering logical networks, security constraints, and bandwidth; etc.).

Determine the required sizing, encompassing current usage and projected growth, of the overall installation (e.g. number of devices, handle the required how many events per second, how many flows per interval, how much storage is required for the solution, how to handle different geographical locations within the deployment, etc.).

Describe the purpose and limitations of the QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 high availability design (e.g. HA bandwidth, which hosts should be HA pairs, latency constraints, and network stability).

Determine how log source locations and information gathering mechanisms can affect QRadar component architecture (e.g. Windows Collection options).

Determine the method for receiving flows based on the architecture (e.g. regenerative taps, port mirrors/SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) ports, NetFlow, etc.).

Outline common environmental data used and compare how they can be integrated (e.g. CMDB, User Information Sources, threat feeds, vulnerability scanners, REST-API, and ticketing systems).

Describe how the SIEM product interacts with other Security Intelligence QRADAR Modules (i.e. Risk Manager, Vulnerability Manager, and Incident Forensics).

Section 2 – Installation (13%)
Implement the appropriate software, Cloud or appliance installation and initial network configuration tasks for a given situation (e.g. ISO, DVD, USB, and recovering an appliance from a USB storage device; set up IP addresses, set up network aggregation links/NIC bonding (management interface), configuring QRadar to use external storage (SAN, iSCSI)).

Use deployment actions under system and license management to add additional managed hosts (e.g. set up encryption, configure off site source/target (non-storage), set up network aggregation links/NIC bonding (non-management interfaces), etc.).

Perform configuration of auto update (e.g. DSM, protocols; with or without internet Connection, etc.) (Level 3- Applying)Perform configuration of auto update (e.g. DSM, protocols; with or without internet Connection, etc.).

Determine which version of QRadar should be used when adding managed hosts into an environment (e.g. patch software, latest build of QRadar, original version of QRadar in place, how it affects managed host, HA, etc.).

Implement and optimize HA pairing (e.g. adding HA cluster to the host, demonstrating a high availability installation, determining which hosts to HA, order of installation, patching, etc.).

Summarize IMM configuration and firmware update mechanisms (e.g. changing passwords, obtaining SSL certificates, setting IP addresses, etc.).

Section 3 – Configuration (20%)
Differentiate which information will need to be put into a network hierarchy, how it relates to rule tests, and whether domains are required.

Determine the appropriate authentication and access control method(s) to use for a given environment (i.e. using the local repository, active directory, LDAP, radius, TACACS, domains and multi-tenancy, etc.) (Level 4- Analyzing)Determine the appropriate authentication and access control method(s) to use for a given environment (i.e. using the local repository, active directory, LDAP, radius, TACACS, domains and multi-tenancy, etc.).

Summarize common system settings which need to be set for each specific environment (e.g. initial system settings; administrative e-mail address, e-mail locale, and database settings, etc.).

Demonstrate configuring log sources (e.g. wincollect, syslog, log source extensions, custom QID entries, event mapping, log source groups, etc.).

Demonstrate configuring flow sources (e.g. different types of flow sources, Jflow, Sflow, netflow, PACKETEER, NAPATECH, etc.).

Demonstrate configuring scanners (e.g. configure different types of scanners and schedules, etc.).

Demonstrate configuring common administrative settings (e.g. configuration and data backups/restore, retention policies and buckets, routing rules, etc.).

Section 4 – General Operational Tasks (17%)
Demonstrate basic event and flow investigation to assist rule development and troubleshooting (i.e. searches, quick filters and simple AQL).

Demonstrate Rule and Building Block creation and optimization to deliver basic use case logic and rule evaluation troubleshooting (e.g. Rule Tests, Rule Actions and Responses, Building Blocks, Test ordering, the False Positive Rule, etc.).

Understand Custom Event and Flow properties, where they are used, how to create them and troubleshooting issues involving them (e.g. simple regex, ‘optimization for rules and searches’, scoping to logs sources/events to minimize evaluation frequency, etc.).

Choose between the four types of reference data and illustrate how the data within them can be manipulated (Aging out, CLI, REST-API and rule responses), what each type would be used for (e.g. transient data storage, rule tests, AQL enrichment, etc.) and how to investigate issues with them.

Understand where historical correlation can be used to review old data or data received in ‘batch mode’.

Discuss the performance, storage and network impact of Local vs Global rule evaluation in a distributed environment.

Section 5 – Performance Optimization and Tuning (15%)
Explain which configuration actions should be taken to make default rule sets useful (e.g. network hierarchy, server discovery and host definition building blocks, host identification, tuning building blocks, etc.).

Perform SIEM performance optimization (e.g. performance limitations, network bandwidth, Disk IO, number of concurrent searches, rules for optimizing EPS, event and flow custom properties, backend scripts, etc.) .

Infer when expensive rules and properties are automatically managed and investigated (i.e. automatic versus manual investigation, reference data, etc.).

Administer aggregated data management (e.g. determining issues with report data, disable any unnecessary views/reports, etc.).

Analyze index management requirements for an environment (e.g. determine which properties to index; understand when to index, etc.).

Section 6 – Administration and Troubleshooting (10%)
Demonstrate the investigation of offenses that are not standardized (e.g. navigate through offenses, related events and flows, analyze offenses, state the difference between an Offense and a Triggered Rule, etc.).

Demonstrate how to monitor and investigate network and log activity search issues (e.g. filtering, searching, grouping and sorting, saving searches and creating reports, creating dashboard widgets from searches, viewing audit logs, indexed fields and quick filter, etc.).

Diagnose asset management and server discovery problems (e.g. vulnerabilities, filtering, searching, grouping, sorting, saving searches on assets, importing, exporting, populating asset databases, etc.).

Diagnose system notifications regarding performance problems or system failures (e.g. dropping events, HA System Failed, I/O error, how to get logs for support tickets, license restrictions, etc.).

IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7
Job Role Description / Target Audience

This intermediate level certification is intended for deployment professionals who are responsible for the planning, installation, configuration, performance optimization, tuning, troubleshooting, and administration of an IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 deployment. These individuals are able to complete these tasks with little to no assistance from documentation, peers or support.

To attain the IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.


Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Understanding of:
· basic system architecture design

· IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 architecture and components
· vulnerability scanners

Working knowledge of:
· security technologies such as firewalls, encryption using keys, SSL, HTTPS,
· regular expressions
· building and managing IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 rules and reports
· IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.7 prerequisite software
· TCP/IP
· LINUX operating system such as vi, iptables, ssh, cat, tail, grep, etc.


QUESTION: No: 1
Which CLI command should be used to change the default password from PASSWORD to S3cure for the username USERID?

A. /opt/ibm/toolscenter/asu/asu set IMM. Password S3cure –ksu
B. /opt/ibm/toolscenter/asu/asu set IMM. Password.1 S3cure –ksu
C. /opt/ibm/toolscenter/asu/asu64 set IMM. Password S3cure — ksu
D. /opt/ibm/toolscenter/asu/asu64 set IMM.Password.1 S3cure — ksu

Answer: D

Explanation:
To reset the IMM password use the following command:
/opt/ibm/toolscenter/asu64 set |MM.Password.1 NewPassword –kcs
References: http://wvvvv-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21964070


QUESTION: No: 2
A Deployment Professional is performing a new deployment, and the customer wants to monitor network
traffic by sending raw data packets from a network device to IBM Security QRadar SEAM V7.2.7.
Which method should be used?

A. AGP card
B. Napatech card
C. SFIow protocol
D. NetFIow protocol

Answer: B

Explanation:
You can monitor network traffic by sending raw data packets to a IBM QRadar QFIow Collector 1310
appliance. The QRadar QFIow Collector uses a dedicated Napatech monitoring card to copy incoming
packets from one port on the card to a second port that connects to a IBM Security QRadar Packet
Capture appliance.
References:
http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSKIVIKU/com.ibm.qradar.doc/t_qf|ow_forvvard_pcap.html


QUESTION: No: 3
A Deployment Professional was asked to investigate the following error:
Custom Rule Engine has detected a total of 20487 dropped event(s).
20487 event(s) were dropped in the last 62 seconds. Queue is at 99 percent capacity
The Deployment Professional needs to run the command “/opt/qradar/bin/findExpensiveCustomRuIes.sh”
to gather the necessary troubleshooting logs.
When should this command be run?

A. Right after a reboot
B. Run “service hostcontext restart” first
C. While the system is dropping events
D. Restart ECS, then run command

Answer: C

Explanation:
The script “findExpensiveCustomRuIes.sh” script is designed to query the QRadar data pipeline and
report on the processing statistics from the Custom Rules Engine (CRE). The script monitors metrics and
collecting statistics on how many events hit each rule, how long it takes to process a rule, total execution
time and average execution time. When the script completes it turns off these performance metrics. The
findExpensiveCustomRuIes script is a useful tool for creating on demand reports for rule performance, it
is not a tool for tracking historical rule data in QRadar. The core functionality of this script is often run
when users begin to see drops in events or events routed to storage between components in QRadar.
References:
http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg219852528myns=swgother&mynp=OCSSBQAC&
mync=R&cm_sp=swgother-_-OCSSBQAC-_-R


QUESTION: No: 4
A current banking customer has just expanded by purchasing a small rural bank with a low bandwidth
WAN connection.
The customer wants to expand its current QRadar SIEIVI 3105 all-in-one deployment to capture log events
from the newly acquired branch and to forward them on a schedule, after hours during the trough of
activity to the main branch. There is plenty of room for this additional EPS growth.
Which device will meet the requirements?

A. 1202 QFIow Collector
B. 1400 Data Node
C. 1501 Event Collector
D. 1605 Event Processor

Answer: D

Explanation:
The IBM Security QRadar Event Processor 1605 (MTM 4380-Q1E) appliance is a dedicated event
processor that you can scale your QRadar deployment to manage higher EPS rates. The QRadar Event
Processor 1605 appliance includes an on-board event collector, event processor, and internal storage for
events.
With the Basic License the capacity is 2500 EPS, and with an upgrade license it is 20000 EPS.

 

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C2150-611 IBM Security AppScan Source Edition V9.0.3 Deployment

0

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 57%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security AppScan Source Edition V9.0.3

The test consists of 6 sections containing a total of approximately 57 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 – Product Features and Capabilities (21%)
Explain what to expect to see from static analysis as opposed to dynamic analysis.
Explain the purpose and characteristics of subcomponents of IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3.
Show reporting features (AppScan source ASE).
Integrate with ASE.
Illustrate the features and capabilities of the IBM Security AppScan Source V9.0.3 for Analysis, Remediation, Development, and Automation.
Illustrate the benefits of integration of AppScan Source with AppScan Enterprise.
Analyze the use of filters in a given situation.
Illustrate the benefits and uses of creating custom scan configuration.

Section 2 – Planning and System Requirements (19%)
Illustrate the user authentication / ASE component.
Illustrate the deployment scenario that should be used in a given situation.
Show external programs needed for scanning (e.g. Java versions, Visual Studio, etc.).
Identify the supported IDEs for the IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 for development/Remediation plugin.
Show the ports required for IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 to be integrated with AppScan Enterprise and the purpose of each of the ports.
Show the framework compatibility.
Show that the required prerequisites are understood and accepted (database and OS).

Section 3 – Installation, Upgrading and Configuration (11%)
Upgrade from older versions of AppScan.
Explain the characteristics and limitations of deploying IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 on OS X, Linux, or Windows.
Examine the steps for ASE server installation (presence of an ASE server, presence of a rational licensing server).
Examine the steps for AppScan Source installation (presence of an IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 database, and if the system requirements are confirmed from IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 components).

Section 4 – Configuring Applications for Scanning (19%)
Use options for Java, .net.
Demonstrate pattern-based rules.
Use advanced scan-based settings.
Configure AppScan for automation (scanning from the command line).
Create and prepare new applications for scanning.
Use the correct Scan Configuration.

Section 5 – Working with Scanned Results (21%)
Show how configuration results and bundles can be used for collaboration.
Solve common scan coverage issues (missing findings, lost sinks, poor coverage, missing sources, unsupported frameworks, etc.).
Solve the possible cause of no findings.
Solve the possible cause of a large number of false suspect findings.
Analyze and triage scan findings.

Section 6 – Administration and Troubleshooting (9%)
Demonstrate the user administration capabilities of IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 (user permissions for different actions in the tool, auditing user activity).
Show the IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3 license that is required for a given scenario.
Distinguish between logging options (log level, log file locations, etc.).
Troubleshoot memory issues and scan failures.
Troubleshoot a licensing checkout issue.

IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security AppScan Source Edition V9.0.3

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This intermediate level certification is intended for deployment professionals working with IBM Security AppScan Source Edition, V9.0.3.

These deployment professionals plan, install, configure, administer, maintain and troubleshoot.

These deployment professionals are generally self-sufficient and able to perform most of the tasks involved in the job role with limited assistance.

To attain the IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Security AppScan Source Edition V9.0.3 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
Application security
Application testing (static and dynamic testing)
Operating systems
Administering applications for servers (Windows, Linux, and OS X)
User authentication
Development
Networking

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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C2150-602 IBM Security Intelligence Solution Advisor V1

Test information:
Number of questions: 48
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 60%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Intelligence V1

The test consists of five sections containing a total of approximately 48 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections

Section 1 – Discover (35%)
Interpret the customer�s requirements.
Estimate the customer�s environment.
Identify and map requirements into product capabilities.
Deliver presentations.
Interpret RFP/RFQ to address functionality and components.
Explain the benefits of partnering with IBM Security.
Identify the business driver for security intelligence.

Section 2 – Scope (15%)
Discuss sizing and licensing considerations such as hardware requirements, number of regions/data centers, and network impacts.
Demonstrate how the integration can evolve with adoption of new components.
Identify the requirement for customization and deployment.

Section 3 – Plan (21%)
Construct a deployment plan (i.e., appliances needed, placement and licensing of the equipment).
Define general requirements for performance, capacity, security, reporting, availability, and regulations.
Define the feasibility requirements in terms of integration.
Prepare a conceptual view of the architecture.

Section 4 – Design (10%)
Finalize a customer�s use case.
Finalize a customer’s environment.

Section 5 – Consult (19%)
Outline the Bill of Material.
Deliver customized presentation solutions.
Explain detailed drawings.
Discuss design options, focusing on requirements, product capabilities and licensing.

IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Intelligence V1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
These solution advisors identify opportunities and influence direction across the IBM Security Intelligence portfolio.

Overall, these solution advisors are able to discover, scope, plan, design and consult. They recommend education, influence key decision makers, are able to respond to Request for Proposals (RFPs) and Request for Quotes (RFQs) and understand licensing and pricing.

These solution advisors also understand infrastructure and application security, and competitive analysis. They also have knowledge of the broader IBM Security portfolio and software development cycle, the IBM Security Intelligence products, business drivers and licensing.

These solution advisors are generally self-sufficient and able to perform most of the tasks involved in the job role with limited assistance.

To attain the IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Intelligence V1 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the Test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Basic understanding of IBM Security products with emphasis on IBM Security Intelligence portfolio.
General knowledge of network security practices.
Common knowledge of regulatory compliance.

Requirements
Test C2150-602 – IBM Security Intelligence Solution Advisor V1

The test:
contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

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C5050-300 Foundations of IBM DevOps V1

Test information:
Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor – DevOps V1

Section 1 – DevOps Principles
Define DevOps
Summarize different development approaches
Explain and identify delivery pipelines
Explain lean principles
Explain DevOps practices
Describe Collaborative Development
Describe Continuous Integration
Describe Continuous Delivery
Describe Continuous Deployment
Describe Continuous Availability / Service Management / Monitoring
Describe Continuous Security / Security for DevOps
Explain Shift-Left Test /Continuous Test
Explain Shift Left Ops
Explain Multi-speed IT
Explain Continuous Feedback
Explain the implications of the �12 Factor app� design principles for DevOps
ITIL and DevOps

Section 2 – Adopting DevOps
Describe business and IT drivers of DevOps
Explain the barriers to adoption of DevOps
Explain how to build a roadmap for DevOps adoption
Explain how to adopt DevOps in Multi-speed IT environment
Explain other continuous improvement approaches
Illustrate the cultural & organizational differences when transforming from traditional to DevOps processes
Explain the benefits of Design Thinking for DevOps process adoption

Section 3 – IBM DevOps Reference Architecture & Methods
Describe IBM DevOps Reference Architecture pattern
Explain the IBM point of view on DevOps
Explain DevOps for Microservices
Explain DevOps for Cloud Native
Explain DevOps for Cloud Ready
Explain Cloud Service Management Operations
Describe the IBM Bluemix Garage Method
Define and identify the common components of a DevOps Tool chain
Describe the key architectural decisions made to adopt DevOps
Describe the concepts of Software Defined Environments

Section 4 – Open Standards, Open Source & Other Common Components of DevOps
Identify tools for Build & Deploy
Identify other common tools and their uses
Describe common container technology
Explain the applicability of open standards for DevOps

Section 5 – IBM Solution for DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the THINK phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CODE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the DELIVER phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the RUN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the MANAGE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the LEARN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CULTURE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for Security in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for transformation and connectivity in DevOps
IBM Certified Solution Advisor – DevOps V1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor – DevOps V1 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM, version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization, deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises / public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain components).

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS) from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).


QUESTION 1
Which type of tests are designed to verify that security features such as authentication and logout work as expected?

A. build verification
B. network vulnerability
C. functional security
D. synthetic user

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
When long lived source control management (SCM) branches are merged, significant amounts of network can be required to resolve code conflicts. Which DevOps practice addresses this problem?

A. continuous integration
B. test-driven development
C. A/B testing
D. continuous deployment

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What are two key metrics for cloud native applications? (Choose two.)

A. performance
B. stability
C. mean time between failures (MTBF)
D. first failure data capture (FFDC)
E. speed of change

Answer: A,E

Explanation: References:


QUESTION 4
Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework?

A. ITILService Design
B. ITIL Service Operations
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement
D. ITIL Service Strategy

Answer: C

Explanation: References:


QUESTION 5
How does adopting DevOps help improve insight into the real value of applications?

A. by using mean time between failure (MTBF) metrics
B. by using customer feedback
C. by using usage statistics for cloud native applications
D. by using analytical analysis for return on investment (ROI) calculations

Answer: A

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C2150-500 IBM Security Dynamic and Static Applications V2 Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 58%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Dynamic and Static Applications V2

Section 1 – Application Security (20%)
Given a scenario, differentiate between DAST, SAST, and/or IAST.
Identify key or necessary triage tasks for DAST and SAST.
Given a scenario, demonstrate various reporting tasks.
Given a scenario, explain continuous delivery tasks, i.e., defect tracking, integrating with SDLC.
Identify AppScan Source remediation tasks.
Given a scenario, identify common web application vulnerabilities.
Identify types of external references that AppScan tool provides.

Section 2 – Competitive Analysis (7%)
Identify the competitive position of AppScan from the perspective of the Gartner Magic Quadrant.
Identify the strengths of the AppScan offering.
Identify the benefits of using AppScan tools, rather than their alternatives.

Section 3 – IBM Security Portfolio (10%)
Given a scenario, identify how AppScan fits into the IBM security framework.
Given a scenario, identify how AppScan fits into the IBM mobile security framework.

Section 4 – Software Development Lifecycle (17%)
Identify ways to integrate AppScan into a build process.
Given a scenario, demonstrate ways to integrate AppScan into a build process.
Identify where blackbox and whitebox solutions fit into secure SDLC.
Given a scenario, explain common development platforms (Ex. Java, .NET, C/C++).
Given a scenario, demonstrate the extensibility of AppScan tools.
Identify the extensibility of AppScan tools.

Section 5 – AppScan Product Knowledge (21%)
Given a scenario, explain how components of the AppScan suite are used in different deployments.
Given a scenario, determine if AppScan can provide a solution.
Identify potential deployment architectures.
Identify supported AppScan development frameworks.
Identify the advantages, purposes, and offerings of integrating AppScann with security tools.

Section 6 – Mobile Security (11%)
Identify the common types of mobile vulnerabilities.
Identify the mobile support platform for AppScan Source and integration with IBM Worklight.

Section 7 – Business Drivers (6%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate how AppScan can solve common problems.
Given a scenario, explain how AppScan can impact a company’s budget.
Given a scenario, explain Application security compliance drivers.

Section 8 – Licensing (8%)
Identify the required license structure for each component in AppScan.
Given a scenario, identify the licenses required for a specific deployment.

IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Dynamic and Static Applications V2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This entry level certification is for solution advisors that are able to identify opportunities and influence direction across the AppScan portfolio. They recommend education, influence key decision makers, are able to respond to RFPs & RFQs, and understand licensing and pricing.

These solution advisors understand application security and competitive analysis, have knowledge of the broader IBM Security protfolio and the software development cycle, have the AppScan product knowledge, and understand mobility security, business drivers and licensing.

This is a technical sales role (CTP/pre-sales engineer) certification.
To attain the IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Security Dynamic and Static Applications V2 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To gain additional knowledge and skills, and prepare for this test based on the job role and test objectives, take the link to the test below, and refer to the Test Preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Have static analysis skills:
Read and program code
Configure source code to compile (build) an application
Remediate trivial errors in Java and .net apps: low hanging fruits
Have dynamic analysis skills:
Understand the web application architecture
Produce high-level deployment architecture solutions.
Write technically.
Comfortable discussing technical concepts with developers.
Comfortable discussing business and financial concepts with managers and executives.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:
Test C2150-500 – IBM Security Dynamic and Static Applications V2 Fundamentals

The test:
contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

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C2150-210 IBM Security Identity Governance Fundamentals V5.1

Test information:
Number of questions: 47
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 58%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate – Security Identity Governance V5.1

Certifications (13%)
Define certification dataset and campaign�
Define signoff options
Define supervisor and reviewer activities
Define notification configuration�

Role Management (9%)
Define role structure
Publish role and define visibility
Consolidate role

Role Mining (15%)
Load Access Optimizer data
Create Role Mining session
Analyse statistics charts to identify candidate role
Analyse assignment map to identify candidate role
Analyse entitlement and user coverage to identify candidate role�
Leverage candidate role in IAG warehouse

Role Maintanence and Health (6%)
Identify unused roles
Retire role
Setup Role Certification campaign

Reporting (13%)
Identify standard report
Customize report layout
Configure scope visibility
customize query and add filter criteria
configure authorization to report for selected users

Separation of Duties (17%)
Define Business Activities
Define SoD Policy
Define Technical Transformation
Analyse Risk Violations
Define Mitigation Controls
Setup Risk Violation Certification Campaign

Installation (9%)
Prepare database server and schema
Configure virtual machine
Install virtual appliance
Configure database connections

Enterprise Integration (4%)
Identity ISIM and ISIG integration options
Identify supported connectors

ISIG Authorization Model (9%)
Define functional authorization for ISIG users
Restrict the data portion for a functional authorization
Define and use Attribute Groups

Access Request Management (9%)
Identify common process activities
Identify UI customization options
Review access request status

IBM Certified Associate – Security Identity Governance V5.1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Associate – Security Identity Governance V5.1 is an individual with entry level knowledge and experience with IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 . This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 through hands on experience. The associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day use of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1 . The individual should be able to complete these tasks with little to not assistance from documentation, peers or support.

Key Areas of Competency
IBM Security Identity Governance UI from an admin and end user perspective
Identify the key ISIG features
Understand the benefits of using ISIG for identity and access governance.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Working end user knowledge of IBM Security Identity Governance V5.1
Understand Identity Governance, Risk and Compliance (GRC) infrastructure such as audit, reporting, access
review, and certification.
Experience with role modeling and role mining
Experience with role healthcare and maintenance.
Understand the ISIG entitlement model and how to leverage it to build target application authorization models.
Understand the ISIG authorization model and access governance responsibilities.
Experience performing an RFP in the access governance space.
Understand business activity-based separation of duties modeling for better business and auditor readability.
Understand typical functionality of access request workflows such as manager approvals.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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C2090-930 IBM SPSS Modeler Professional v3

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 67%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Specialist – SPSS Modeler Professional v3

This test will certify that the successful candidate has the fundamental knowledge to participate as an effective team member in the implementation of IBM SPSS Modeler Professional analytics solutions.

SPSS Modeler Professional Functionality (10%)
Identify the purpose of each palette
Describe the use of SuperNodes
Describe the advantages of SPSS Modeler scripting

Business Understanding and Planning (10%)
Describe the CRISP-DM process
Describe how to map business objectives to data mining goals

Data Understanding (15%)
Describe appropriate nodes for summary statistics, distributions, and visualizations (for example, graph nodes, output nodes)
Describe data quality issues (for example, outliers and missing data)

Data Preparation (20%)
Describe methods for data transformation (for example, Derive node, Auto Data Prep node, Data Audit node and Filler node)
Describe how to integrate data (for example, Merge node and Append node)
Describe sampling, partitioning, and balancing data (for example, Sample node, Balance node and Partition node)
Describe methods for refining data (for example, Select node, Filter node and Aggregate node)

Modeling (20%)
Describe classification models (including GLM and regression)
Describe segmentation models
Describe association models
Describe auto modeling nodes
Demonstrate how to combine models using the Ensemble node

Evaluation and Analysis (15%)
Demonstrate how to interpret SPSS Modeler results (for example, using Evaluation node, Analysis node, and data visualizations)
Describe how to use model nugget interfaces

Deployment (10%)
Describe how to use Export nodes (tools for exporting data)
Identify how to score new data using models
Identify SPSS Modeler reporting methods

IBM Certified Specialist – SPSS Modeler Professional v3

Job Role Description / Target Audience
The candidate has knowledge of analytical solutions, understands IBM SPSS Modeler capabilities, has knowledge of the IBM SPSS Modeler data model, can apply consistent methodologies to every engagement and develop SPSS predictive models.

To achieve the IBM Certified Specialist – SPSS Modeler Professional certification, candidates must possess the skills identified under Recommended Prerequisite Skills, if any, and pass one (1) exam.

Upon completion of this technical certification the successful candidate shows having the fundamental knowledge to participate as an effective team member in the implementation of IBM SPSS Modeler Professional analytics solution.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
The following are topics that are assumed before your test preparation and will not be tested on :
Database and ODBC concepts
Basic proficiency in statistical concepts
Knowledge of basic computer programming

QUESTION 1
You have collected data about a set of patients, all of whom suffered from the same illness. During their course of treatment, each patient responded to one of five medications. The column. Drug, is a character field that describes the medication. You need to find out which proportion of the patients responded to each drug.
Which node should be used?

A. Web node
B. Distribution node
C. Sim Fit node
D. Evaluation node

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
When describing data, which two nodes address value types? (Choose two.)

A. Data Audit node
B. Statistics node
C. Type node
D. Report node

Answer: A,C


QUESTION 3
How many stages are there in the CRISP-DM process model?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
An organization wants to determine why they are losing customers.
Which supervised modeling technique would be used to accomplish this task?

A. PCA
B. QUEST
C. Apriori
D. Kohonen

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You want to create a Filter node to keep only a subset of the variables used in model building, based on predictor importance.
Which menu in the model nugget browser provides this functionality?

A. File
B. Preview
C. View
D. Generate

Answer: C

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C2090-913 Informix 4GL Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 90
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solutions Expert — Informix 4GL Developer

If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

Section 1 – Informix 4GL (18%)

Section 2 – Statements (28%)

Section 3 – Cursors and Memory (13%)

Section 4 – Creating a Help File: The mkmessage Utility (1%)

Section 5 – Creating a Report Driver (3%)

Section 6 – Defining Program Variables (3%)

Section 7 – Displaying Forms and Windows (4%)

Section 8 – Forms that use Arrays (4%)

Section 9 – Passing Values between Functions (6%)

Section 10 – procedural Logic (1%)

Section 11 – The REPORT Functions (3%)

Section 12 – The SQLCA Record (6%)

IBM Certified Solutions Expert — Informix 4GL Developer

Job Role Description / Target Audience
If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

To attain the IBM Certified Solutions Expert – Informix 4GL Developer certification, candidates must pass 1 test.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Significant experience as an Informix 4GL Developer.

 


QUESTION 1
Which parts of the DISPLAY ARRAY statement are always required?

A. ON KEY keywords
B. screen array name
C. program array name
D. END DISPLAY keywords
E. DISPLAY ARRAY keywords
F. BEFORE DISPLAY keywords

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What can the arr_count() library function be used to determine?

A. the current position in the screen array
B. the current position in the program array
C. the number of elements in the screen array
D. the number of elements in the program array

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which features are unique to the INPUT ARRAY statement?

A. BEFORE/AFTER ROW clause
B. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT clause
C. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD clause
D. BEFORE/AFTER DELETE clause
E. BEFORE/AFTER INSERT clause

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

Explanation:

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C2090-719 InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 65%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Designer – InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5

This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the intermediate and advanced skills required to design, develop, and support InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5 applications.

Section 1 – Architecting Warehouse Solutions (15%)
Demonstrate knowledge of InfoSphere Warehouse architecture and components
Editions
Software Components (why/when to use)
Describe the InfoSphere Warehouse building life-cycle
Steps to build and deploy the application(s)

Section 2 – Implementation (Table Ready) (5%)
Describe hardware topologies
Given a scenario, demonstrate how to implement security considerations

Section 3 – Physical Data Modeling (15%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of the modeling process and the Design Studio features used
Identify physical design methods
Compare and synchronize
Impact analysis
Components
Enhancing the model
Given a scenario, describe range/data partitioning considerations
When is it appropriate to use
Cost

Section 4 – Cubing Services (CS) (20%)
Demonstrate knowledge of Cubing Services components
Cube server
Design Studio
MQT administration
Given a scenario, describe CS tooling and access methods
Demonstrate knowledge of CS optimization advisor
Identify the steps in creating a CS OLAP cube
Metadata
Creation of cube model and cube
Demonstrate knowledge of CS administration
Deploying cubes to cube server
Deploying cubes across multiple servers
Caching

Section 5 – Data Mining/Unstructured Text Analytics (12%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of data mining and unstructured text analytics in InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5
Given scenario, describe the InfoSphere Intelligent Miner methods and how to use them
The mining process
Modeling
Scoring
Visualization
Demonstrate how to use Design Studio to implement mining methods
Mining unstructured text data – what do you do with it after it is extracted
Describe the unstructured text analytic information extraction process
Using JAVA regular expressions
Dictionary

Section 6 – SQL Warehousing Tool (SQW) (20%)
Demonstrate knowledge of SQW components
Data flows
Control flows
Mining flows
Variables
Versioning
Describe SQW anatomy
Operators
Ports
Connectors
Given a scenario, describe the SQW debugging functions

Section 7 – Run-time Administration and Monitoring of the Warehouse (13%)
Identify the application preparation steps for deployment
Describe the InfoSphere Warehouse components managed by Admin console
Demonstrate knowledge of managing, monitoring, and scheduling processes in Admin console
Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of workload management and monitoring
Difference between workload and classes
Controlling types of queries
Performance Expert

IBM Certified Solution Designer – InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification exam certifies that the successful candidate has important knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform the intermediate and advanced skills required to design, develop, and support InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5 applications. Applicable roles include: Solutions Architect, Data Warehouse Developers, and Database Administrator (in a data warehousing environment)

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

Test(s) required:
Click on the link(s) below to see test details, test objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

Test C2090-719 – InfoSphere Warehouse V9.5

QUESTION 1
What are two reasons for a combination of database and front-end tool based analytic
architectures in a data warehouse implementation? (Choose two.)

A. Less data is moved across the network, making queries run faster.
B. The database can provide consistent analytic calculations and query speed for common queries.
C. The combination of architectures will ensure fast query performance.
D. Multidimensional queries cannot be processed in SQL by the database engine so it must be done using a front-end tool.
E. The front-end tool allows for additional and more complex algorithms specific to applications that use that tool.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
After deploying an application, you might need to update it by making changes to one or more
data flows. Deploying changes to an existing application is called delta deployment. How do you
package changes using delta deployment?

A. Package only the operator or property that has changed.
B. Package the data flow that has changed.
C. Package the control flow.
D. Package all the items that were originally packaged and use the same profile that was used.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
You are implementing a DB2 Workload Manager (WLM) schema to limit the number of load
utilities that can execute concurrently. Which WLM object would be used to accomplish this?

A. work class with an associated work action and an appropriate threshold
B. workload with an associated service class and an appropriate threshold
C. work class with an associated service class and an appropriate threshold
D. workload with an associated work action and an appropriate threshold

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Several operators are defined and linked together in DataFlow1. Another set of operators make up
DataFlow2. A control flow is defined and both DataFlow1 and DataFlow2 are used. You require
that DataFlow1 dynamically change the variable values used in DataFlow2. How can you fulfill this
requirement?

A. The inherent design of the SQL Warehouse Tool is that any variable value changed in one data
flow is accessible by any other data flow as long as the data flows are defined in the same warehouse project.
B. Using the File Export operator, DataFlow1 writes a file that contains updated variable values.
DataFlow2 accesses those updated variable values by reading that same file using an Import File operator.
C. When a control flow is executed, a run profile provides the initial values for all variables. Once
those values are set in the run profile, they are in affect for the entire execution of the control flow.
D. Using the File Export operator, DataFlow1 writes a file, containing updated variable values. A
variable assignment operator is then used to assign the values in the file to the appropriate
variables. DataFlow2 then has access to the updated variable values.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Relational database and a database model that is often a star or snowflake schema are
characteristics of which engine storage structure?

A. MOLAP
B. ROLAP
C. Multidimensional cubing
D. Proprietary

Answer: B

 

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C2090-645 IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author

Test information:
Number of questions: 57
Time allowed in minutes: 60
Required passing score: 75%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Designer – Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Reports
IBM Certified Solution Expert – Cognos BI

The Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author Exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Dimensional Data Components (28%)
Distinguish between relational, DMR, and dimensional data sources
Identify dimensional data items and expressions
Define multidimensional data structure components
Describe the importance of report context
Identify the default measure of a report
Describe default members and their purpose
Describe what a MUN is and identify the impact of using the wrong MUN
Describe what a set is
Describe what a tuple is

Focus Reports (14%)
Distinguish between dimensional and relational filtering styles
Identify techniques to focus data using the dimensional style
Interpret data that is focused based on members
Interpret data that is filtered based on measure values
Describe the purpose of a slicer

Drilling in Reports (14%)
Describe default drill-down behavior
Describe default drill-up behavior
Describe cases for advanced drilling configuration
Appraise reports generated with calculations that are preserved during drilling
Describe how member sets work

Drill-through Access (8%)
Identify supported drill-through data item combinations
Set-up drill-through access
Describe a conformed dimension

Calculations and Dimensional Functions (36%)
Describe the use of arithmetic operations in queries
Analyze the use of dimensional functions in queries
Examine coercion
Apply prompts to focus reports
Compose complex expressions that combine and reuse existing expressions


QUESTION 1
To display all individual campaigns in a crosstab report, a report author could use the expression set([TrailChef Campaign],[EverGlow Campaign],[Course Pro Campaign]). Instead, the report author decides to use the parent member of the campaigns in the set expression “children([All Campaigns])”. Which statement is true about the method that was used?

A. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the report author must modify the expression.
B. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the unmodified expression will be valid.
C. The report author should not have used the method chosen, as the first method is best
in this situation.
D. To be accurate, the report author should avoid using a set expression.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is correct about the order function?

A. The currentMeasure function must be used with the order function as the sort by criterion.
B. It arranges members of all sets in the report by ascending or descending values.
C. Optional parameters allow the author to order the members of a hierarchy without regard of their level.
D. It arranges members of a set alphabetically by ascending or descending captions.

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this action?

A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. There is nothing wrong with this approach.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
When must a report author use the caption function?

A. As the first parameter of the roleValue function.
B. To return the display name for the specified business key.
C. To see the string display name for the specified element.
D. To pass the returned value to a drill-through target report, this expects a matching string as a parameter value.

Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Instead of prompting the user to select any countries in Europe, the report author wants to constrain the user to select one or more countries from the Northern Europe region. What kind of prompt should be used and how can this be achieved?

A. This is not possible because a prompt must always be populated with all members of a level.
B. Create a multi-select value prompt. Populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe] member to retrieve its children on the country level.
C. Generate a prompt by creating an expression with a parameter on the crosstab edge: children([Northern Europe]->?Country?
D. Create a tree prompt, and populate it using an expression on the [Northern Europe]
member to retrieve its children at the country level.

Answer: B

 

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